This is actually a really really good theory, and I've been thinking about it for a while now. Because, in a weird and twisted way Moffat and Gatiss would absolutely aprove of, it kinda makes sense.
It has a background (they both base almost everything on the books, just...rewrite it a bit. And gay it up.) and it, for once, makes it BELIEVABLE (Sherlock's fall, ahem ahem)
But the question that comes up in my mind while thinking this over. Let's call prof. Moriarty M1 and his brother M2. Because that's shorter to write.
Which one did what? Was it M1 the whole time? No, M2 must have had some insight on his brother's game. (Did you miss me?) When was Sherlock dealing with M1? When with the other brother? But, in 'The Adventure of the Final Problem' ACD says that Colonel James Moriarty is not as powerful and not even really fully into this criminal thingy. If even.
So, uh, does he want revenge? Or is he been involved from the very very start?
Sorry for the rant ^^ :3
Plus, I think this topic kinda belongs to the season four thingy
Last edited by InSpiritGolden (June 15, 2014 4:46 am)